Oedipus does act for the greater good. So, one would think the answer to the question would be no, but Oedipus satisfies his own intentions and values at the same time. Besides the eye-gouging and his wife dying and being cursed from birth and..... this isn't going the direction I wanted it to. Anyway, I was going to say that aside from all the bad stuff, Oedipus is actually pretty awesome in the respect that he is able to satisfy the will of society and his own will, but then again, his intentions are those established by the society. So, are they his own or are they society's? Well, he essentially willed the society to be what it is as he is king. Did he not?
I am having excessive difficulty here because I am lacking information. If he established the societal values, then he acts both of his own intentions and of those of the society, but if he adapted to the societal intentions, then he does not act of his own intentions... or does he? If he adapted, that would mean that his intentions are now equivalent to those of the society, and therefore, he does satisfy the intentions of society and of himself. Yet, if he did not adapt but simply put on a facade in order to please the people or just because he believed that would be the most effective way to lead, then he does not act of his own intentions but of society's. Overall though, the 'Thought' aspect of Oedipus appears to suggest that he truly believes what he is decreeing as his intentions. So, he does act of societal intentions, and by doing so, he satisfies his own intentions. (Even though he doesn't act in self-preservation, that does not mean that he is not satisfying his own intentions because his intention is to do what is best for the people of Thebes.)
I like the self-argumentative format of this entry. Couldn't one claim that Oedipus acted out of his "best intentions" when trying to avoid the prophecy by leaving Corinth--regardless if these intentions were shaped by society or not?
ReplyDeleteThe arguement of whether or not society shaped his intentions goes back to the conversation about free will we had a couple days ago at the end of class. Does someone have free will to make a decision if each decision can be predicted beforehand? So, even if society shapes Oedipus' "best intentions," are they still his? Meh. I can't say I know whether or not. It is still a topic that I need to establish an opinion on. Ok. For me not to have an opinion on something is hypocritical. Let's say my ideals conflict on this one. Within Christianity, I am taught that everyone has free will, yet it is also taught that God is all-knowing. So, even though you get to choose, he knows what is going to happen. Rationally, I strongly believe each decision is completely predictable (having known the experience and mental state and other circumstances of the individual). So, if predictability or God knowing what will happen kills free will, then I suppose it doesnt exist.
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